ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
- A. Bursitis
- B. Sinusitis
- C. Depression
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.
3. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea. Neutropenia is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. It is essential to assess the client's white blood cell count regularly to detect neutropenia early and prevent complications such as infections.
4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report that can indicate the medication is effective?
- A. Headache
- B. Nausea
- C. Dizziness
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects. It can indicate that the medication is working effectively by dilating blood vessels, improving blood flow, and reducing cardiac workload. Therefore, the client should report experiencing headaches as it may suggest the therapeutic action of nitroglycerin. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin and should be reported as adverse effects that may necessitate medical attention.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a 4-year-old child who is resistant to taking medication. Which of the following strategies should the healthcare provider use to elicit the child's cooperation?
- A. Offer the child a choice of taking the medication with juice or water
- B. Tell the child it is candy
- C. Hide the medication in a large dish of ice cream
- D. Tell the child they will have a shot instead
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering children choices empowers them and can help in gaining cooperation, especially when it comes to taking medications. By providing options like taking the medication with juice or water, the child feels a sense of control and may be more willing to cooperate. This approach respects the child's autonomy and can make the experience more positive for both the child and the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are not ideal strategies as they involve deception or coercion, which can lead to distrust and make the child more resistant to taking medication in the future.
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