Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

2. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Thrombocyte count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Amylase.
• D. Liver function tests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.

3. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for an inflammatory condition and is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• D. Take this medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Prednisone in the morning to prevent insomnia. Prednisone can cause insomnia as a side effect, so taking it in the morning can help minimize this issue. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of Prednisone administration to optimize its effectiveness and minimize adverse effects.

4. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. On the nonoperative side
• C. Sims'
• D. Semi-Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.

5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

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