a nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

2. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Injection-site reactions such as redness and swelling are common. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for potential adverse effects.

3. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

4. A patient is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The available acetaminophen liquid is 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen liquid per dose to provide the prescribed 650 mg of acetaminophen. Choice B, 7 mL, is incorrect because the correct calculation results in 6.5 mL. Choice C, 5 mL, is incorrect as it is the concentration of the acetaminophen liquid, not the final volume needed. Choice D, 8 mL, is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the prescription and concentration.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

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