Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

2. What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?

• A. Liver Failure
• B. Anaphylaxis
• C. Respiratory Depression
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. Take the medication before meals.
• B. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
• C. Increase your intake of high-calcium foods.
• D. Expect your urine to turn orange.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include when teaching a client prescribed Omeprazole is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective when taken before meals as it works by reducing the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Choice B is incorrect because a rapid heart rate is not a common side effect of Omeprazole. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to increase intake of high-calcium foods with Omeprazole. Choice D is also incorrect as Omeprazole does not typically cause urine discoloration.

4. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
• D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.

5. What is the correct medical term used to describe impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Angina pectoris
• C. Cerebrovascular accident
• D. Coronary heart disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct medical term for impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries is Coronary heart disease. This condition is characterized by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Myocardial infarction (choice A) refers to a heart attack, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Angina pectoris (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Cerebrovascular accident (choice C) is the medical term for a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted.

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