ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.
2. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Previous history of thromboembolism
- B. Concurrent use of an antacid
- C. History of bronchial asthma
- D. Recent weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.
4. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
5. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
- C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
- D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.
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