a nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

2. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.

3. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.

4. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.

5. When taking Digoxin, low levels of what can cause toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low potassium levels can lead to Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. When potassium levels are low, there is an increased risk of Digoxin binding and toxicity. Choice B (Calcium) is incorrect because low calcium levels are not directly linked to Digoxin toxicity. Choice C (Sodium) is incorrect as low sodium levels do not cause Digoxin toxicity. Choice D (Magnesium) is incorrect as low magnesium levels do not contribute to Digoxin toxicity.

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