a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.

2. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

3. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that affects the gums. It is crucial for the client to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent oral health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While the timing of medication administration and dietary considerations are important, they are not directly related to preventing the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia caused by Phenytoin.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.

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