ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
- A. Use a blood pressure cuff to distend the veins.
- B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
- C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
- D. Direct the client to lower his arm below his heart.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The healthcare professional should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to make the veins more visible and accessible for IV catheter insertion. This technique helps reduce the risk of overfilling the vein, which can lead to complications such as hematoma formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while selecting the antecubital area is often appropriate for IV insertion in adults, the key action in this scenario is to distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to facilitate the procedure.
3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Ephedrine?
- A. COPD
- B. Hypotension
- C. Congestion
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ephedrine is not typically used to treat COPD. While it can help relieve symptoms like congestion and hypotension, it is not a first-line treatment for COPD. Incontinence is not a condition commonly treated with Ephedrine either.
4. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.
5. A client has a new prescription for Amiodarone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking Amiodarone. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Amiodarone, leading to increased blood levels of the medication and raising the risk of adverse effects, such as cardiac toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Amiodarone with meals, at bedtime, or increasing intake of sodium-rich foods are not necessary instructions for this medication.
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