ATI RN
ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and breastfeeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent mastitis?
- A. Feed the newborn on demand
- B. Apply warm compresses to the breast before feeding
- C. Massage the breast after feedings
- D. Ensure the newborn empties one breast before switching to the other
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent mastitis, the nurse should instruct the client to ensure that the newborn empties one breast before switching to the other. This helps to prevent milk stasis, reducing the risk of inflammation and infection. Choice A is incorrect because feeding on demand is recommended to establish a good milk supply and prevent engorgement. Choice B is incorrect as warm compresses are usually applied before feeding to promote milk flow. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the breast after feedings can actually increase the risk of mastitis by causing further irritation.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is large for gestational age (LGA). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperbilirubinemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Newborns who are large for gestational age (LGA) are at risk for hypoglycemia due to increased insulin production. Hyperbilirubinemia (Choice A) is more commonly associated with ABO or Rh incompatibility. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) is not a common finding in LGA newborns. Hypothermia (Choice D) may occur in newborns who are small for gestational age (SGA) due to a lack of subcutaneous fat for insulation, but it is not typically associated with LGA newborns.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 1+ proteinuria
- B. Blood pressure 144/92 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate 22/min
- D. Urine output 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should report a urine output of 20 mL/hr. This finding can indicate decreased renal perfusion and possible development of preeclampsia, which is a severe complication of gestational hypertension. Inadequate urine output can suggest compromised kidney function and impaired maternal and fetal well-being. Options A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and may not require immediate reporting to the provider.
4. A nurse is providing care for a client who is in active labor and receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contraction frequency of 2 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 90 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate of 150/min
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 90 seconds can indicate uterine tachysystole, which may lead to fetal hypoxia. Uterine tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window. Contractions every 2 minutes (Choice A) may occur in active labor but need to be assessed in conjunction with other factors. A fetal heart rate of 150/min (Choice C) is within the normal range. Urine output of 60 mL/hr (Choice D) is also within the expected range for a client in labor.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client reports constipation
- B. Client reports swelling in the face
- C. Client reports heartburn
- D. Client reports frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because facial swelling can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition during pregnancy that requires immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), heartburn (choice C), and frequent urination (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy and are not typically indicative of a serious complication like preeclampsia at 32 weeks of gestation.
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