Nursing Elites

1. A client has urinary incontinence, and the nurse is caring for them. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to prevent the development of skin breakdown?

• A. Request a prescription for the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Check the client's skin every 8 hours for signs of breakdown
• C. Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the client's skin
• D. Clean the client's skin and perineum with hot water after each episode of incontinence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to prevent skin breakdown in a client with urinary incontinence is to apply a moisture barrier ointment to the skin. This ointment helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of moisture exposure, reducing the risk of breakdown. Requesting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention for skin breakdown prevention. Checking the client's skin for signs of breakdown (Choice B) is important but not as effective as applying a moisture barrier. Cleaning the skin with hot water (Choice D) can actually be detrimental as hot water can strip the skin of its natural oils and worsen skin integrity.

2. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

3. A healthcare provider is providing a report to a colleague about a client who weighs 210 lb and has a prescription for one-third weight bearing on the right leg. How many kg of weight should the client bear on the right leg?

• A. 32 kg
• B. 35 kg
• C. 40 kg
• D. 45 kg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the weight-bearing limit, we first need to convert 210 lbs to kg. To do this, we use the conversion factor 1 lb = 0.453592 kg. So, 210 lbs is equal to 210 * 0.453592 = 95.254 kg. One-third of 95.254 kg is 31.7513 kg, which can be rounded to 32 kg. Therefore, the client should bear 32 kg of weight on the right leg. Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight and the prescribed weight-bearing limit.

4. A patient is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric (NG) tube. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after each feeding.
• B. Check the placement of the NG tube before each feeding.
• C. Administer medications through the NG tube every 4 hours.
• D. Increase the feeding rate if the patient is tolerating well.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the placement of the NG tube before each feeding is crucial as it ensures the tube is correctly positioned, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration or improper delivery of feedings. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after each feeding can disrupt the feeding schedule and is not a standard procedure. Administering medications through the NG tube every 4 hours may not be necessary for all patients and should be based on specific medication requirements. Increasing the feeding rate without proper assessment and monitoring can lead to feeding intolerance or complications, making it an inappropriate intervention.

5. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

• A. Finger
• B. Earlobe
• C. Toe
• D. Skin fold

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

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