Nursing Elites

1. A client has urinary incontinence, and the nurse is caring for them. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to prevent the development of skin breakdown?

• A. Request a prescription for the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Check the client's skin every 8 hours for signs of breakdown
• C. Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the client's skin
• D. Clean the client's skin and perineum with hot water after each episode of incontinence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to prevent skin breakdown in a client with urinary incontinence is to apply a moisture barrier ointment to the skin. This ointment helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of moisture exposure, reducing the risk of breakdown. Requesting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention for skin breakdown prevention. Checking the client's skin for signs of breakdown (Choice B) is important but not as effective as applying a moisture barrier. Cleaning the skin with hot water (Choice D) can actually be detrimental as hot water can strip the skin of its natural oils and worsen skin integrity.

2. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

• A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
• B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
• C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
• D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Report any urine output greater than 30 mL/hr.
• B. Bruising on the arms and legs.
• C. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bruising on the arms and legs is a sign of bleeding, which is a serious complication of heparin therapy and should be reported immediately to the provider. Option A is incorrect as urine output greater than 30 mL/hr is a normal finding. Option C, positive Trousseau's sign, is associated with hypocalcemia, not heparin therapy. Option D, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range and does not indicate a complication of heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the notes written by a previous shift. Which documentation reflects proper guidelines?

• A. Incomplete entries are acceptable as long as they are justified
• B. Documentation should include objective observations only
• C. Corrections in documentation should be signed and dated
• D. Entries should be modified by another healthcare professional if necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper documentation should include objective observations and detailed notes to ensure continuity of care. Choice A is incorrect because incomplete entries can lead to gaps in information and compromise patient care. Choice C is not completely accurate as corrections should be made in a manner that does not obscure the original entry but does not necessarily require a signature. Choice D is incorrect as entries should ideally be corrected by the original author to maintain accountability and accuracy.

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