ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
- B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
- C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
- D. The client has Medicare insurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
2. A nurse sees a healthcare provider administer an incorrect medication dose but does not report the error. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ignore the situation and continue with patient care.
- B. Report the error to the nurse manager immediately.
- C. Speak to the healthcare provider directly about the error.
- D. File an anonymous report to avoid conflict.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse witnesses a healthcare provider administering an incorrect medication dose, the first step should be to report the error to the nurse manager immediately. Reporting medication errors is crucial for patient safety as it allows prompt intervention to prevent harm. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the situation can jeopardize patient safety. Choice C, while addressing the error directly, may not ensure proper documentation and follow-up. Choice D, filing an anonymous report, is not as effective as directly informing the nurse manager who can take appropriate action and follow-up on the incident.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 4
- D. 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.
4. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Oral candidiasis
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct. Fluticasone, a corticosteroid medication commonly used to manage asthma, can lead to oral candidiasis due to its immunosuppressive effects. This fungal infection can manifest as white patches in the mouth and throat. Monitoring for signs of oral candidiasis is essential to initiate appropriate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. Hypertension and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this medication, making them incorrect choices.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.
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