ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
- D. Poor problem-solving ability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to identify common objects. Clients with schizophrenia often experience cognitive deficits, such as difficulty in identifying common objects. This can be attributed to impairments in perception and cognition. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head injuries or metabolic disturbances. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia. Poor problem-solving ability is a characteristic of conditions affecting executive functioning like dementia, rather than schizophrenia.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
- B. I should take this medication with food.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?
- A. Match the client's identification band with the number on the blood unit
- B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
- C. Ask the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation
- D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?
- A. Serum sodium 144 mEq/L.
- B. HbA1c 10%.
- C. Random serum glucose 190 mg/dL.
- D. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
- B. Empty the drainage collection chamber when it is half full.
- C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
- D. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours to maintain patency.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.
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