Nursing Elites

1. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?

• A. Methylergonovine
• B. Misoprostol
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Left upper quadrant pain.
• B. Periumbilical pain.
• C. Rebound tenderness.
• D. Flank pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is A, left upper quadrant pain. In acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas commonly causes pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. This pain can be severe and radiate to the back. Periumbilical pain (choice B) is more indicative of acute appendicitis. Rebound tenderness (choice C) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not specifically pancreatitis. Flank pain (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions involving the kidneys or ureters, such as renal colic.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?

• A. Let's talk about how you can change your response to stress.
• B. We should establish our roles in the initial session.
• C. Let me show you simple relaxation exercises to manage stress.
• D. We should discuss resources to implement in your daily life.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

5. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the medication
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

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