Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has not voided for 8 hours following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide assistance to the bathroom
• B. Insert a straight catheter
• C. Increase fluids
• D. Perform a bladder scan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the first step to assess bladder retention before any further interventions.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hip pallor
• B. Leg abduction
• C. Muscle spasms
• D. Leg lengthening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.

3. A client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss. What should the nurse suggest?

• A. Encourage the client to cut their hair short before chemotherapy.
• B. Provide resources for wigs or hairpieces.
• C. Assure the client that hair loss will be minimal.
• D. Offer the client medication to reduce the chances of hair loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing wigs and other coping resources helps clients manage the emotional effects of chemotherapy-related hair loss. Encouraging the client to cut their hair short before chemotherapy (Choice A) is not necessary as hair loss may still occur. Assuring the client that hair loss will be minimal (Choice C) may provide false hope as hair loss is a common side effect of chemotherapy. Offering medication to reduce hair loss (Choice D) is not a typical approach as chemotherapy-related hair loss is often an expected side effect that cannot be entirely prevented with medication.

4. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

5. Which factor places a patient at the highest risk for infection?

• A. A healthy immune system
• B. Presence of chronic illness
• C. Being well-nourished
• D. Age over 65 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of chronic illness is the factor that places a patient at the highest risk for infection. Chronic illness can compromise the immune system's ability to fight off infections effectively, making individuals more susceptible to getting sick. Option A, a healthy immune system, actually reduces the risk of infection. Option C, being well-nourished, can support overall health but does not directly correlate with infection risk. While age over 65 years is a risk factor for certain infections due to age-related immune system changes, chronic illness has a more significant impact on infection risk.

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