a nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for clients receiving heparin, indicating a potential need for dosage adjustment. Platelet count (choice A) within normal range, aPTT (choice B) within therapeutic range, and hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to the monitoring of heparin therapy and would not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

5. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the provider recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is lean beef because it is a good source of protein and essential nutrients. When providing dietary recommendations to clients with hypertension, it is important to focus on lean protein sources to promote a balanced diet. Bananas, although a healthy fruit, may not be the best choice due to their high potassium content, which can sometimes be a concern for individuals with hypertension. Whole grains are generally a good choice, but lean protein like beef is more suitable in this scenario. Canned soup often contains high levels of sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with hypertension.

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