Nursing Elites

1. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Seizures
• C. Angioedema
• D. Pulmonary Edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

2. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?

• A. Protamine
• B. Methylene blue
• C. N-acetylcysteine
• D. Glucagon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if an overdose occurs or if there is excessive bleeding due to Heparin use, protamine, a positively charged molecule, can neutralize the anticoagulant effects of Heparin by forming a complex with it. This binding prevents Heparin from further inhibiting coagulation factors and helps in reversing its effects.

3. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. “A beta blocker.”
• B. “A sodium channel blocker.”
• C. “An alpha blocker.”
• D. “A calcium channel blocker.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.

4. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?

• A. “There is no reason to take the patch off each day.”
• B. “The patch can be addictive; leaving it off reduces the addiction.”
• C. “You should only leave the patch off for 15 minutes.”
• D. “Leaving the patch off for 8 hours per day helps to delay the development of tolerance.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.

5. A healthcare provider is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Apply one patch twice a day.
• B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
• C. Apply the patch to the child's waist.
• D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, it is important to leave the patch on for 9 hours each day to ensure the medication is effective. This duration allows for proper absorption of the medication through the skin. It is crucial for parents to follow this instruction to achieve the desired therapeutic effect for their child.

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