ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice B
1. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
- D. Administer a prescribed sedative.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.
2. A client is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy sessions.
- B. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety.
- C. Encourage the client to limit caffeine intake.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety is an appropriate intervention for severe anxiety. Verbalizing emotions can help the client process their feelings and reduce the intensity of anxiety. It promotes emotional expression and may lead to a better understanding of the underlying causes of anxiety, paving the way for effective coping strategies. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for severe anxiety. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be suitable for someone experiencing severe anxiety. Limiting caffeine intake and avoiding stressful situations are helpful strategies but may not address the root of the severe anxiety or provide immediate relief.
3. A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
- A. Genetics have no influence on your temperament.
- B. How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.
- C. Maintaining good physical health always keeps stress levels low.
- D. Stress can be avoided by using appropriate coping mechanisms.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.' This response is appropriate because past experiences can shape an individual's current response to stress. It acknowledges the impact of learned patterns and coping mechanisms on one's current adaptation to stressors. Choice A is incorrect because genetics can play a role in temperament to some extent. Choice C is incorrect because while physical health can contribute to stress management, it is not the sole determinant of stress levels. Choice D is incorrect as stress is not always avoidable, but coping mechanisms can help manage and reduce its impact.
4. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should maintain a consistent salt intake.
- B. I should drink 6-8 glasses of water daily.
- C. I need to have my lithium levels checked regularly.
- D. I can stop taking my medication once my mood stabilizes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The statement "I can stop taking my medication once my mood stabilizes" indicates a need for further teaching. Clients should continue taking their medication as prescribed and have regular monitoring of lithium levels.
5. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?
- A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
- B. Generalized anxiety disorder
- C. Persistent depressive disorder
- D. Substance use disorder
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Substance use disorder. Ramelteon is preferred for patients with substance use disorder because it lacks abuse potential. This makes it a safer choice for individuals with a history of substance misuse. Choosing a medication with a lower risk of abuse in this population is crucial to prevent potential misuse or dependence issues.
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