Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L). Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Positive Chvostek's sign
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Numbness of the extremities
• D. Abdominal cramping

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common symptom of hyponatremia due to an imbalance in electrolytes. While other options like Chvostek's sign, bradycardia, and numbness of the extremities can be associated with other electrolyte imbalances, they are not typically seen with low sodium levels. Chvostek's sign is related to hypocalcemia, bradycardia can be seen in hyperkalemia, and numbness of the extremities can be a symptom of hypocalcemia or hypokalemia, but not directly related to hyponatremia.

2. When a patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted for a cholecystectomy, which nursing action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Communicate the blood glucose level and insulin dose to the circulating nurse in surgery.
• B. Discuss the reason for the use of insulin therapy during the immediate postoperative period.
• C. Administer the prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery.
• D. Plan strategies to minimize the risk for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia during the postoperative period.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the administration of prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery is a task that can be safely delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). This action is within the scope of practice of an LPN/LVN and does not require independent nursing judgment. Choices A and B involve communicating and discussing important medical information, which are higher-level nursing actions typically performed by registered nurses. Choice D involves planning strategies to manage blood glucose levels postoperatively, which requires critical thinking and assessment skills usually performed by a registered nurse.

3. A client experiences an air emboli, resulting in a stroke, during an IV start. This can be classified as which type of risk?

• A. Patient dissatisfaction
• B. Medical-legal incident
• C. Medication error
• D. Diagnostic procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Diagnostic procedure.' When a client experiences an air emboli leading to a stroke during an IV start, it falls under the category of a diagnostic procedure risk. This incident occurred during a procedure intended for diagnosis or evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Patient dissatisfaction refers to a client's discontent with care, service, or outcomes; a medical-legal incident involves legal issues related to healthcare practices; and a medication error pertains to mistakes in medication administration.

4. A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

• A. Hydrocolloid
• B. Transparent
• C. Gauze
• D. Alginate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrocolloid. For a stage 2 pressure injury, a hydrocolloid dressing is recommended. Hydrocolloid dressings provide a moist environment that promotes healing and is effective for wounds with moderate exudate. Choice B (Transparent) is not typically used for stage 2 pressure injuries as it is more suitable for superficial wounds. Choice C (Gauze) is not ideal for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can adhere to the wound bed and cause trauma upon removal. Choice D (Alginate) is more appropriate for wounds with heavy exudate, not typically seen in stage 2 pressure injuries.

5. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

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