Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to question the administration of this medication?

• A. Osteoporosis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Peptic ulcer disease
• D. Immunosuppression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peptic ulcer disease. Methotrexate can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease, leading to serious complications. This finding warrants questioning the administration of methotrexate to prevent harm to the client. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with methotrexate use. Osteoporosis, hypertension, and immunosuppression are not typically reasons to question the administration of methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis.

2. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed acetaminophen for pain. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Serum glucose
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum bilirubin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, so serum creatinine levels should be monitored for potential hepatotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine can help detect liver damage, a potential adverse effect of acetaminophen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because serum glucose is not directly affected by acetaminophen, serum potassium is not typically monitored for acetaminophen adverse effects, and serum bilirubin is more related to bile metabolism rather than acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity.

4. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

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