Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The nurse verifies the postoperative prescription which reads, 'Discontinue NPO status; advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following are appropriate for the nurse to offer the client? (SATA)

• A. Wheat toast
• B. Applesauce
• C. Applesauce, Chicken broth
• D. Chicken broth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applesauce and chicken broth. After an appendectomy, patients are typically started on a clear liquid diet before advancing to more solid foods. Applesauce and chicken broth are part of a low-residue diet that is easily digestible and gentle on the digestive system, making them suitable choices for a client following surgery. Wheat toast may be too heavy and fibrous initially, while other solid foods should be introduced gradually to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

2. Worldwide, what is the most common nutrient deficiency?

• A. magnesium deficiency
• B. iron deficiency
• C. selenium deficiency
• D. zinc deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Iron deficiency is the most common nutrient deficiency globally. It leads to anemia and affects many populations, especially women and children. Magnesium, selenium, and zinc deficiencies are important, but they are not as prevalent as iron deficiency on a global scale.

3. Nurse DMLM is correct in identifying the correct sequence of events during abdominal assessment if she identifies which of the following?

• A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
• B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
• C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation. Start with Inspection to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by Auscultation to listen for bowel sounds, then Percussion to assess the density of underlying structures, and finally Palpation to feel for any tenderness or masses. Choices A, B, and C have the incorrect sequence of assessment techniques.

4. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.

• A. genetic determination
• B. metabolic tolerance
• C. chromosomal influence
• D. fetal programming

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.

5. Each statement is true of vitamin K, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Vitamin K is produced in the gut.
• B. Vitamin K functions as a catalyst for the synthesis of blood-clotting factors.
• C. Vitamin K maintains prothrombin levels.
• D. Vitamin K absorption increases with high levels of vitamin E supplementation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vitamin K absorption decreases with high levels of vitamin E supplementation because in larger amounts, vitamin E acts as an anticoagulant. Vitamin K is not produced in the gut but can be obtained from food sources or supplements. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of blood-clotting factors and is crucial in maintaining prothrombin levels, which is vital for proper blood clotting. The incorrect choice, D, is misleading as high levels of vitamin E supplementation hinder vitamin K absorption due to its anticoagulant properties. Dental hygienists should be aware of the importance of vitamin K in blood clotting, especially when treating patients who are on anticoagulant medications for conditions like stroke prevention.

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