ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. A nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The nurse verifies the postoperative prescription which reads, 'Discontinue NPO status; advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following are appropriate for the nurse to offer the client? (SATA)
- A. Wheat toast
- B. Applesauce
- C. Applesauce, Chicken broth
- D. Chicken broth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applesauce and chicken broth. After an appendectomy, patients are typically started on a clear liquid diet before advancing to more solid foods. Applesauce and chicken broth are part of a low-residue diet that is easily digestible and gentle on the digestive system, making them suitable choices for a client following surgery. Wheat toast may be too heavy and fibrous initially, while other solid foods should be introduced gradually to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
2. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?
- A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
- B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
- C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
- D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.
3. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.
4. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. An autoimmune disorder
- B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
- C. An increase in intracranial pressure
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.
5. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased urine flow
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.