Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

2. What assessment question will provide information to the healthcare provider regarding the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life?

• A. How much sleep do you usually get each night?
• B. Does your heart ever seem to skip a beat?
• C. When was the last time you had a fever?
• D. Do you have problems urinating?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct assessment question to understand the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life is to inquire about her sleep duration. Circadian rhythms significantly influence sleep patterns, so knowing how much sleep she usually gets each night can provide valuable insight into potential circadian rhythm disturbances and their impact on her overall well-being.

3. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

4. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?

• A. 3.7
• B. 1.7
• C. 2.6
• D. 1.3

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

5. When caring for a patient with major depressive disorder prescribed an MAOI, what type of food should the nurse educate the patient to avoid?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. Tyramine-rich foods
• D. Low-fat foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients prescribed MAOIs need to avoid consuming tyramine-rich foods as these can lead to hypertensive crises. Tyramine is found in various foods like aged cheeses, cured meats, some types of beer, and fermented products. Interactions between tyramine and MAOIs can result in severe hypertension, highlighting the importance of educating patients about dietary restrictions to ensure their safety. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high-protein foods, high-fiber foods, and low-fat foods do not pose a significant risk of hypertensive crises when taken with MAOIs. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Similar Questions