a nurse is assessing a clients behavior for potential aggression which behavior would the nurse recognize as the highest predictor of future violence
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

2. A client diagnosed with OCD spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where an individual focuses on rational, logical explanations to distance themselves from uncomfortable emotions. In this scenario, the client discusses the OCD rituals in a detailed and analytical manner, avoiding the emotional aspects associated with them. This behavior reflects intellectualization rather than dissociation, rationalization, or sublimation. Dissociation involves a disconnection from reality, rationalization is the attempt to justify behaviors, and sublimation is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

3. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering benzodiazepines as prescribed is a crucial intervention in managing alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines help alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, and seizures commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. Monitoring vital signs is important to assess the client's physiological stability, but addressing the withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines is a priority to prevent severe complications. Providing a high-protein diet and encouraging fluid intake are important for overall health but do not directly manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

4. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.

5. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

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