Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discourage the client from washing her hands
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

3. In treating a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), what is the most appropriate goal of this therapy?

• A. To explore the patient's childhood experiences.
• B. To reduce the patient's symptoms through medication.
• C. To change the patient's negative thought patterns.
• D. To improve the patient's social skills.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is to change the patient's negative thought patterns. This therapy focuses on identifying and modifying distorted thinking patterns that contribute to anxiety. Exploring childhood experiences (Choice A) may be part of therapy, but the primary focus is on present thoughts and behaviors. While medication (Choice B) can help manage symptoms, CBT aims to address the root cause through cognitive restructuring. Improving social skills (Choice D) is not the primary goal of CBT for GAD, although it may be a secondary benefit as confidence improves with reduced anxiety.

4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Muscle tension
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Side effects of antipsychotic medications commonly include tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Muscle tension is not typically associated with antipsychotic medication use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements, orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, and hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels. Monitoring these side effects is crucial for early detection and management, but muscle tension is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications.

5. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connection. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
• B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Medication adherence will be mandated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because medication adherence being mandated is not a primary rationale for inpatient treatment. The main reasons for recommending inpatient treatment in this scenario include the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms, addressing nutritional and self-care needs, and ensuring safety due to the imminent danger of self-harm. Inpatient settings provide a more intensive level of care and supervision to address these complex issues effectively.

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