ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel less anxious.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take full effect.
- D. This medication can cause dependency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates a misunderstanding about buspirone. Buspirone should not be abruptly stopped, and patients should follow the prescribed regimen consistently. Stopping the medication without proper guidance can lead to adverse effects or a return of anxiety symptoms. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of important aspects of buspirone therapy: avoiding alcohol due to interactions, being patient for the medication to reach full effectiveness, and being aware of the potential for dependency with this medication.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with factitious disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Intentional production of false symptoms
- B. Lack of concern about symptoms
- C. Fear of gaining weight
- D. Unintentional production of false symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with factitious disorder deliberately fabricate or exaggerate symptoms to assume the sick role and garner attention. They may show a lack of concern about their symptoms, a phenomenon known as la belle indifférence. Fear of gaining weight is not typically associated with factitious disorder. Therefore, the correct behavior to expect in a client with factitious disorder is the intentional production of false symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lack of concern about symptoms and fear of gaining weight are not characteristic of factitious disorder. Additionally, factitious disorder involves the intentional, not unintentional, production of false symptoms.
3. Which patient should be most carefully assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance among those receiving the following drugs?
- A. lithium (Eskalith)
- B. clozapine (Clozaril)
- C. diazepam (Valium)
- D. amitriptyline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is known to cause polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst), which can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, patients receiving lithium should be carefully monitored for signs of fluid and electrolyte disturbances to prevent any potential complications.
4. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?
- A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
- B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
- C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
- D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.
5. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
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