Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

• A. Periods of elevated mood
• B. Decreased need for sleep
• C. Flight of ideas
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bipolar disorder, common findings include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure, is more indicative of conditions like major depressive disorder. Therefore, the nurse should not expect to find anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder.

2. A nurse is assessing a patient with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Agree with the patient's delusions to avoid confrontation.
• B. Encourage the patient to explore the basis of the delusions.
• C. Engage the patient in reality-based activities.
• D. Ask the patient to explain the delusions in detail.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention when assessing a patient with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to engage the patient in reality-based activities. This intervention helps distract the patient from the delusions and reorients them to the present, promoting grounding in reality. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with delusions can reinforce them and hinder treatment. Choice B may exacerbate the delusions by delving deeper into their basis. Choice D may not be beneficial as it focuses solely on the delusions without addressing the need to ground the patient in reality.

3. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?

• A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
• B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
• C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
• D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.

4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Clonazepam
• C. Lithium
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

5. Which therapeutic approach is considered most effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

• A. Cognitive processing therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive processing therapy is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that has been shown to be highly effective in treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). This therapy focuses on helping individuals process and make sense of their traumatic experiences, leading to symptom reduction and improved coping mechanisms. Psychoanalysis, medication management, and group therapy can be beneficial in some cases, but cognitive processing therapy is specifically tailored for addressing the symptoms and underlying causes of PTSD. Psychoanalysis may not be as effective for PTSD due to its focus on unconscious conflicts rather than trauma processing. Medication management can be useful as an adjunct to therapy but does not address the core issues of PTSD. Group therapy can provide support but may not offer the individualized approach that cognitive processing therapy provides.

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