Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

• A. Periods of elevated mood
• B. Decreased need for sleep
• C. Flight of ideas
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bipolar disorder, common findings include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure, is more indicative of conditions like major depressive disorder. Therefore, the nurse should not expect to find anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder.

2. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?

• A. Clonazepam
• B. Buspirone
• C. Propranolol
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.

3. During cognitive-behavioral therapy, a 12-year-old patient reports to the nurse practitioner:

• A. I was so mad I wanted to hit my mother.
• B. I thought that everyone at school hated me. That's not true. Most people like me and I have a friend named Todd.
• C. I forgot that you told me to breathe when I become angry.
• D. I scream as loud as I can when the train goes by the house.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is crucial for progress. Choice B demonstrates the patient's ability to identify and correct distorted thoughts, indicating positive advancement in therapy. This cognitive restructuring is a key component of cognitive-behavioral therapy, helping individuals develop healthier thinking patterns and coping strategies.

4. Before discharge from the chemical dependency unit, clients are introduced to different community resources. Which of the following resources would be best for a teenage client, who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days?

• A. Detoxification center
• B. Home care
• C. Assertive community team
• D. Twelve-step recovery group

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a teenage client who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days, the best resource would be a detoxification center. This specialized facility can provide the necessary medical and psychological support to safely manage the withdrawal symptoms associated with substance abuse. It is crucial to ensure a safe and supervised detox process for the client's well-being and successful recovery.

5. Which statement about the concept of neuroses is most accurate?

• A. An individual experiencing neurosis is unaware of the distress they are experiencing.
• B. An individual experiencing neurosis feels helpless to change their situation.
• C. An individual experiencing neurosis is aware of psychological causes of their behavior.
• D. An individual experiencing neurosis has a loss of contact with reality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neurosis involves feelings of distress and anxiety, but individuals experiencing neurosis are usually aware of their distress and its causes. They may recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive and are generally in contact with reality. The accurate statement about neurosis is that an individual feels helpless to change their situation. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with neurosis are usually aware of their distress. Choice C is incorrect because while individuals may be aware of psychological causes, it is not the defining characteristic of neurosis. Choice D is incorrect because a loss of contact with reality is more characteristic of psychosis, not neurosis.

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