Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?

• A. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
• B. Intact skin behind the ears
• C. The client understanding the need for oxygen
• D. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?

• A. Bag valve mask device
• B. Defibrillator machine
• C. Chest tube equipment
• D. Central venous catheter tray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.

3. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
• B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
• C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Night sweats
• C. Confusion
• D. Narrowed pulse pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.

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