Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The client reports the urge to have a bowel movement and begins to bear down during contractions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to perform rapid, shallow breathing
• B. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
• C. Have the client perform pelvic tilts during contractions
• D. Apply counterpressure to the client's sacrum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform rapid, shallow breathing. The urge to bear down during contractions indicates the second stage of labor, and pushing prematurely can lead to complications. Rapid, shallow breathing helps prevent pushing until the cervix is fully dilated. Choice B is incorrect because preparing for an emergency cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as pelvic tilts are not appropriate when the client is already bearing down. Choice D is incorrect since applying counterpressure to the sacrum is not the priority when the client is showing signs of advancing labor.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation about the glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should eat a low-carbohydrate diet for 3 days before the test.
• B. You will need to fast for 12 hours before the test.
• C. You should expect the test to take about 1 hour.
• D. You will need to limit fluid intake to water before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. During a glucose tolerance test, the client is required to drink a glucose solution, and blood samples are taken at specific intervals, typically over a period of 1 to 3 hours. In this case, the nurse should inform the client to expect the test to take about 1 hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific instruction to eat a low-carbohydrate diet for 3 days before the test, fast for 12 hours before the test, or limit fluid intake to water before the test in a standard glucose tolerance test.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin to a client who is 28 weeks gestation. The nurse should understand that Rh immune globulin is administered to prevent which of the following?

• A. Rh incompatibility
• B. Severe preeclampsia
• C. Placental abruption
• D. Erythroblastosis fetalis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rh incompatibility. Rh immune globulin is administered to prevent the formation of antibodies in clients who are Rh-negative and have been exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood. Severe preeclampsia (choice B) is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to organs, not prevented by Rh immune globulin. Placental abruption (choice C) is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, not prevented by Rh immune globulin. Erythroblastosis fetalis (choice D) is a condition where maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells due to Rh incompatibility, which Rh immune globulin helps prevent.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Painless vaginal bleeding
• B. Severe abdominal pain
• C. Uterine contractions
• D. Increased fetal movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding as the placenta is located over or near the cervical opening. This bleeding occurs because the placental vessels are stretched and bleed easily. Severe abdominal pain (choice B) is not a typical finding in placenta previa. Uterine contractions (choice C) are more characteristic of preterm labor rather than placenta previa. Increased fetal movement (choice D) is not a specific finding associated with placenta previa.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• B. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• C. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
• D. Client reports feeling warm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min is significantly low and indicates potential magnesium toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range during magnesium sulfate therapy and does not require immediate reporting. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ are a normal finding and do not indicate any immediate concerns. The client reporting feeling warm is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other symptoms.

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