Nursing Elites

1. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

• A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
• B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
• C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
• D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

• A. Provide a structured environment
• B. Encourage rest periods
• C. Limit setting on inappropriate behaviors
• D. Allow the client to engage in stimulating activities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, interventions should focus on providing a structured environment, encouraging rest periods, and setting limits on inappropriate behaviors. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania, such as increased energy, impulsivity, and risk-taking behaviors. Therefore, it is important to avoid encouraging such activities to prevent worsening of manic symptoms.

3. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

4. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.

5. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.

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