a nurse is assessing 15 year old identical twins who respond very differently to stress one twin becomes anxious and irritable while the other withdra
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

2. A healthcare professional is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Which client behavior would the healthcare professional identify as characteristic of a manic episode?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals often experience heightened energy levels, increased goal-directed activity, and may engage in risky behaviors. This excessive energy is a key characteristic of manic episodes. Choice A, sleeping excessively, is more characteristic of a depressive episode. Choice C, decreased appetite, can be seen in various mood disorders but is not specific to manic episodes. Choice D, lack of interest in activities, is more indicative of a depressive episode rather than a manic episode. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these signs to provide appropriate care and support to individuals with bipolar disorder.

3. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should exclude the instruction to 'Avoid all social interactions' when providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia. It's important for individuals with schizophrenia to continue taking medications as prescribed, report any medication side effects to the healthcare provider, and develop a daily routine to promote stability. Social interactions, albeit with appropriate boundaries, can be beneficial for the client's well-being and integration into the community.

4. When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express their feelings is essential during alcohol withdrawal as it can help them cope with the emotional and psychological stress associated with the process. This intervention promotes open communication, allows the client to verbalize their emotions, and may prevent escalating anxiety or agitation, ultimately reducing the risk of complications. Providing a well-lit environment (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing complications of alcohol withdrawal. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is not the standard treatment for alcohol withdrawal; medications such as benzodiazepines are more commonly used. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, encouraging the client to express their feelings (Choice D) directly addresses emotional well-being, which is crucial during this vulnerable time.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

Similar Questions

A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse should educate the patient that this medication is typically used for:
A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?
Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
A teenage boy is attracted to a female teacher. Without objective evidence, a school nurse overhears the boy state, 'I know she wants me.' This statement reflects which defense mechanism?
Which response by a 15-year-old demonstrates a common symptom observed in patients diagnosed with major depressive disorder?

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