a nurse enters a clients room and finds the client pulseless the clients living will requests no resuscitation be performed but the provider has not w
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.

2. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

3. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

4. What is the priority action when a patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the medication and notify the healthcare provider when a patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a medication. This action is crucial to prevent further harm to the patient. Monitoring blood pressure (choice A) or urine output (choice D) may be important but is not the priority when managing an allergic reaction. Administering an antihistamine (choice C) should only be done after discontinuing the medication and consulting with the healthcare provider.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing how a patient's pain is affecting mobility. Which assessment question is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate assessment question in this scenario is asking the patient, 'What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?' This question helps the healthcare provider understand how pain is impacting the patient's daily activities and mobility, providing valuable insight into the limitations caused by the pain. Choice B focuses on pain medication effectiveness, which is not directly related to mobility assessment. Choice C aims at pain intensity assessment but does not directly address mobility issues. Choice D suggests a solution rather than gathering information about the current impact of pain on mobility.

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