a newly licensed nurse is giving a change of shift report using i sbar to an oncoming nurse which of the following statements by the newly licensed nu
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A newly licensed nurse is giving a change-of-shift report using I-SBAR to an oncoming nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should be included in the 'Background' portion of the report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the 'Background' portion of the report, the nurse should include relevant historical information about the client, such as the fact that the client has no living family members. This information helps provide a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically included in the 'Background' section as they do not pertain to the client's history or background.

2. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient refuses a prescribed medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to respect the patient's right to refuse the medication. It is crucial to uphold the patient's autonomy and decision-making capacity when it comes to their treatment. Administering the medication later without the patient's consent (Choice B) disregards their autonomy and can lead to ethical issues. Documenting the refusal and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) is important for legal and continuity of care purposes but should come after respecting the patient's decision. While explaining the importance of the medication (Choice C) is valuable for promoting understanding and compliance, the immediate concern should be respecting the patient's refusal.

3. A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for chest pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve oxygen supply to the heart. Obtaining a detailed medical history, conducting an ECG, or administering morphine sulfate are important steps in the assessment and treatment process but are secondary to the immediate need to address chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. A client with a new prescription for sumatriptan tablets to treat migraine headaches should report which of the following symptoms to the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.

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