Nursing Elites

1. A forensic nurse is using the epidemiological triangle to explain factors that contribute to violent behavior. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as an environmental factor in the epidemiological triangle?

• A. Crowded living conditions
• B. Traumatic brain injury
• C. Alzheimer's disease
• D. Impaired coping abilities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crowded living conditions are considered an environmental factor in the epidemiological triangle as they can contribute to the spread of violence. In this context, environmental factors refer to external influences such as social and physical environments. Traumatic brain injury, Alzheimer's disease, and impaired coping abilities are not typically classified as environmental factors in the epidemiological triangle. Traumatic brain injury and Alzheimer's disease are more related to individual health conditions, while impaired coping abilities are more focused on individual psychological factors rather than external environmental influences.

2. While reviewing a client's chart, a nurse notices a discrepancy in the medication record. What should the nurse do?

• A. Correct the discrepancy and document the correction.
• B. Report the discrepancy to the nurse manager.
• C. Ignore the discrepancy assuming it is a clerical error.
• D. Discuss the discrepancy with the client and adjust the records.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting medication discrepancies to the nurse manager is crucial to ensure patient safety and proper follow-up. The nurse manager is responsible for addressing medication errors and implementing necessary corrective actions. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the discrepancy without reporting it may lead to potential harm to the patient and violates professional standards. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the discrepancy increases the risk of medication errors going unresolved. Choice D is incorrect because discussing the discrepancy with the client before verifying the accuracy of the record can cause confusion and compromise patient safety.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

• A. Oral mucosa
• B. Conjunctivae
• C. Soles of the feet
• D. Ear lobes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

4. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
• B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
• C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
• D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

Similar Questions