Nursing Elites

1. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
• B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
• C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
• D. 10-year-old who is nauseated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

2. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

• A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
• B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
• C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
• D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate and worsen the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using a soft-bristle toothbrush may still cause discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be irritating. Choice C is incorrect as swallowing antifungal solution meant for topical use is not appropriate and can be harmful.

3. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

4. Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increased sodium intake
• B. Decreased potassium intake
• C. Increased fiber intake
• D. Increased cholesterol intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increasing fiber intake can aid in managing hypertension by promoting heart health and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can elevate blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake is also not advised as potassium is essential for regulating blood pressure. Lastly, increasing cholesterol intake is detrimental for hypertension as it can contribute to cardiovascular issues and worsen the condition.

5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
• B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
• C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
• D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.

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