ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. What intervention would be the most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?
- A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
- B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
- C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
- D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with a left nephrectomy is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Changing the surgical dressing daily, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are also important aspects of care but not as critical as ensuring adequate intravenous fluid management post-surgery.
2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
- A. Red meat
- B. Chicken
- C. Fish
- D. Dairy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A patient with a history of gout should avoid foods high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Red meat is particularly high in purines, so it is the type of food that should be avoided. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally not associated with triggering gout attacks, so they can be consumed in moderation by patients with gout.
3. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:
- A. Physician and nurse
- B. Physician and pharmacist
- C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
- D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.
5. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?
- A. Preparation
- B. Training
- C. Mobilization
- D. Selection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' In the context of the Army Medical Department, mobilization refers to the process of preparing and organizing medical personnel and resources for deployment during military operations. While preparation, training, and selection are important functions within the military medical field, mobilization specifically relates to the readiness and deployment of medical assets in response to operational requirements, making it the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department.
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