ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
- A. The nurse removes the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin
- B. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side
- C. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side and the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
- D. The nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck’s traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.
2. The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?
- A. Deep tendon reflexes
- B. Arterial blood gases
- C. Skin turgor
- D. Capillary refill time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deep tendon reflexes. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the assessment needed when administering magnesium sulfate in this scenario. Arterial blood gases are not typically assessed specifically for magnesium sulfate administration; skin turgor and capillary refill time are more related to hydration status and perfusion, respectively.
3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
4. What are three major causes of atherosclerosis?
- A. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite
- B. High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking
- C. Constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis
- D. Kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking are three major causes of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is mainly attributed to the buildup of cholesterol-rich plaques in the arteries, high blood pressure causing damage to the arterial walls, and the harmful effects of cigarette smoking on blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary causes of atherosclerosis.
5. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?
- A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
- B. DOD tri-service hospitals
- C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
- D. Field hospitals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are equipped to provide specialized care tailored to military personnel. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not always have the necessary expertise and resources to cater specifically to military-related injuries. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, primarily serve veterans and may not always accommodate short-term care for active-duty personnel. Choice D, field hospitals, are usually set up in temporary or emergency situations and are not designed for long-term care, making them less suitable for patients expected to return within 60 days.
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