the nurse supervises care of a client in bucks traction the nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed select al
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck’s traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.

2. What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure the overall health and readiness of military personnel. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fully capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department. While providing physical examinations, healthcare in disaster areas, and education/training are important aspects, the central mission is to uphold the health and combat readiness of the Army.

3. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '68WM6'. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel responsible for performing nursing care duties at various levels of health care. This choice is correct as it specifically identifies the enlisted personnel role related to nursing care. Choice A (68A30) is incorrect as it does not pertain to nursing care duties. Choice C (Physician assistant) is incorrect as physician assistants are not typically enlisted personnel. Choice D (6.80E+21) is incorrect as it is a numerical value and not a designation for enlisted personnel.

4. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

5. During a physical assessment of a newborn, what finding should the nurse prioritize reporting?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a head circumference of 40 cm is unusually large for a newborn, which may indicate hydrocephalus or other abnormalities. Reporting this finding is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as concerning during a newborn physical assessment. A chest circumference of 32 cm is within the normal range for a newborn. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common findings in newborns and usually resolve without intervention. While a heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min should be monitored, they are not as critical as an unusually large head circumference.

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