Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?

• A. Goals should be vague
• B. Goals should be unrealistic
• C. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable
• D. Goals should be easy to achieve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable. Well-written goals should be specific and quantifiable to provide clear direction and motivation. Choice A is incorrect as goals should not be vague but rather specific. Choice B is incorrect as goals should be realistic to be attainable. Choice D is incorrect as goals should challenge individuals and not be too easy to achieve to promote growth and development.

2. A nurse manager who tells the staff to 'come to me with any problem' but then keeps the office door closed is using what type of communication?

• A. Intrasender conflict
• B. Diagonal communication
• C. Metacommunication
• D. Upward communication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intrasender conflict. Intrasender conflict happens when there is a discrepancy between verbal and nonverbal communication. In this scenario, the nurse manager's verbal message encourages staff to communicate openly, but the closed office door sends a conflicting nonverbal message, creating intrasender conflict. Metacommunication involves nonverbal behaviors like gestures or facial expressions that support or contradict verbal communication. Upward communication refers to the flow of information from staff to management or lower to upper management. Diagonal communication involves communication between individuals or departments at different hierarchical levels.

3. Which theory views motivation as learning?

• A. Reinforcement
• B. Process
• C. Operant
• D. Conditioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Reinforcement. Reinforcement theory views motivation as learning through the association of behaviors with consequences. Choice B, Process, is too vague and does not specifically relate motivation to learning. Choice C, Operant, is a type of conditioning that focuses on voluntary behavior and its consequences, not motivation as learning. Choice D, Conditioning, is a general term that does not directly connect motivation with learning.

4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

5. The Hawthorne effect explains that the relationship between people and productivity is enhanced by which of the following?

• A. Special attention
• B. Organizations
• C. Creativity
• D. Groups

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Hawthorne effect is a term used to describe how people modify their behavior in response to the attention they are receiving rather than the manipulation of variables. Special attention, as mentioned in choice A, is the correct answer because when individuals feel that they are being closely monitored or that special interest is being taken in them, they tend to perform better or change their behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Hawthorne effect specifically focuses on the impact of attention and not on organizational structures, creativity, or group dynamics.

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