which of the following is a characteristic of a well written goal
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable. Well-written goals should be specific and quantifiable to provide clear direction and motivation. Choice A is incorrect as goals should not be vague but rather specific. Choice B is incorrect as goals should be realistic to be attainable. Choice D is incorrect as goals should challenge individuals and not be too easy to achieve to promote growth and development.

2. A technique used to eliminate negative behavior by ignoring the behavior is known as __________.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Extinction.' Extinction is a behavioral psychology technique where undesirable behavior is ignored, leading to its eventual decrease or elimination. This process involves withholding reinforcement that was previously maintaining the behavior. Choice A, 'Punishment,' involves applying negative consequences to reduce unwanted behavior, which is different from extinction. Choice C, 'Shaping,' is a method of gradually molding or reinforcing behaviors to reach a desired behavior, not ignoring negative behavior. Choice D, 'Equity,' refers to fairness and equal treatment, which is unrelated to eliminating negative behavior through ignoring it.

3. One way to determine staffing needs is to classify clients according to nursing care required. Another name for this is a(n) __________.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: acuity system. An acuity system involves classifying clients based on the nursing care they require to determine staffing needs accurately. Choice A, self-scheduling, is not related to classifying clients based on care needs. Choice B, supplementing staff system, does not specifically refer to the classification of clients. Choice C, patient classification system (PCS), is close but not as commonly used as 'acuity system' in healthcare settings to determine staffing needs.

4. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.

5. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

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