Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?

• A. Goals should be vague
• B. Goals should be unrealistic
• C. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable
• D. Goals should be easy to achieve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable. Well-written goals should be specific and quantifiable to provide clear direction and motivation. Choice A is incorrect as goals should not be vague but rather specific. Choice B is incorrect as goals should be realistic to be attainable. Choice D is incorrect as goals should challenge individuals and not be too easy to achieve to promote growth and development.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Protective environment
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

3. What is the primary purpose of a nurse staffing committee?

• A. To oversee patient safety initiatives
• B. To develop staffing policies and procedures
• C. To coordinate patient care
• D. To manage nurse recruitment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a nurse staffing committee is to develop staffing policies and procedures to ensure adequate nurse-to-patient ratios. By establishing these guidelines, the committee aims to optimize patient care by ensuring appropriate staffing levels, which in turn can enhance patient safety and coordination of care. While overseeing patient safety initiatives and managing nurse recruitment are important aspects of healthcare management, the core function of a nurse staffing committee is to create and implement policies that govern the allocation and distribution of nursing staff to meet patient care needs effectively. Therefore, choices A, C, and D, though relevant to healthcare, do not align with the primary purpose of a nurse staffing committee as outlined in the question.

4. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

• A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
• B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
• C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
• D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

5. What behaviors can be observed before a person becomes violent? (EXCEPT)

• A. Wandering
• B. Tense shoulders and clenched fists
• C. Blank stare
• D. Positioned with one foot in back and an arm pulled back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before a person becomes violent, observable behaviors may include tense shoulders, clenched fists, a blank stare, and being positioned with one foot in back and an arm pulled back. Wandering is not typically associated with threatening behaviors signaling imminent violence. DelBel (2003) suggests that strategies such as relaxed body language, maintaining physical distance, and silence can help de-escalate an agitated individual's response.

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