what is the commz level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, GH (General Hospital), as it is the COMMZ level hospital that focuses on treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital) primarily provides surgical care close to the front lines. CSH (Combat Support Hospital) offers more comprehensive surgical and medical care than FSB but does not focus on rehabilitation like GH. FH (Field Hospital) provides initial medical care and stabilization before patients are evacuated to higher-level facilities.

2. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

3. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck’s traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.

4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accountability. Accountability involves knowing what individuals are doing during duty hours, ensuring they are responsible and answerable for their actions. Personal/professional development (choice B) refers to enhancing one's skills and knowledge, individual training (choice C) focuses on specific training needs, and military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical presentation and fitness of individuals, not directly related to knowing what they are doing during duty hours.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

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