Nursing Elites

1. What are three major causes of atherosclerosis?

• A. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite
• B. High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking
• C. Constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis
• D. Kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking are three major causes of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is mainly attributed to the buildup of cholesterol-rich plaques in the arteries, high blood pressure causing damage to the arterial walls, and the harmful effects of cigarette smoking on blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary causes of atherosclerosis.

2. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
• B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
• C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
• D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.

3. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

• A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
• B. Erb’s point
• C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
• D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.

4. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of milk."
• B. "I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast."
• C. "I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee."
• D. "I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can impair iron absorption. Choice B is correct as taking the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast is appropriate. Choice C is correct as coffee can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is correct as antacids should be taken 2 hours after ferrous sulfate to avoid interference with its absorption.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

Similar Questions