Nursing Elites

1. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

• A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
• B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
• C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
• D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic areas of concern into which practical nurse management responsibilities can be categorized?

• A. Managing patients' legal affairs
• B. Managing the hypothalamus: The hypothalamus is a small area in the brain located just below the thalamus. It plays a crucial role in controlling various bodily functions, including temperature regulation, hunger, and thirst, sleep-wake cycles, and hormone regulation. The hypothalamus is also involved in the control of the autonomic nervous system and the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
• C. Managing work center operations
• D. Managing personnel

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Managing patients' legal affairs is not a basic area of concern in practical nurse management responsibilities. The primary areas typically include managing work center operations, managing personnel, and overseeing patient care. Choice B, managing the hypothalamus, is irrelevant to nurse management responsibilities and is not a standard area of concern in this context. Choice C, managing work center operations, and Choice D, managing personnel, align more closely with the core responsibilities and concerns of practical nurse management roles.

3. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?

• A. Raise the head of the bed so you are sitting straight up, bend your knees, and swing your legs to the side and then to the floor
• B. Rock your body from side to side, going further each time until you build up enough momentum to be lying on your right side, and then raise your trunk toward your toes
• C. Reach over to the left side rail with your right hand, pull your body onto its side, bend your upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and push down to elevate your trunk
• D. Focus on using your arms, the left elbow as a pivot with the left hand grasping the mattress edge and the right hand pushing on the mattress above the elbow, then slide your legs over the side of the mattress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best direction provided by the nurse. This method involves reaching over to the left side rail with the right hand, pulling the body onto its side, bending the upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and pushing down to elevate the trunk. This approach helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, reducing strain on the back. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that are not suitable for a client recovering from a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion and could potentially cause harm or discomfort.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

5. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?

• A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
• B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
• C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
• D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.

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