Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of GOD). Which nursing action(s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.

• A. Providing snacks between meals
• B. Removing coffee from the breakfast tray
• C. Ensuring that there is no pork on the dinner tray
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seventh Day Adventists typically avoid caffeine and pork, so providing snacks between meals and removing coffee from the breakfast tray are appropriate actions to meet the dietary needs of this client. Providing snacks helps ensure the client has options that align with their dietary restrictions, while removing coffee respects their avoidance of caffeine. Ensuring that there is no pork on the dinner tray is also crucial as pork is typically avoided in their diet, making choice C correct. Therefore, choices A and B are correct, making D the most appropriate selection.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

3. The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Escort the client to the physical therapy department
• B. Medicate the client 30 minutes before going to the whirlpool
• C. Obtain the sterile dressing supplies for the client
• D. Assist the client to the bathroom prior to the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client’s comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (choice A) is not the priority at this time. While obtaining sterile dressing supplies (choice C) is important, ensuring pain management takes precedence. Assisting the client to the bathroom (choice D) is not directly related to the priority intervention of pain management before the whirlpool treatment.

4. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
• C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
• D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

5. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
• B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
• C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
• D. 10-year-old who is nauseated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 2-year-old with reduced urine output (1 wet diaper in 24 hours) is at high risk for dehydration. Dehydration can occur rapidly in young children and can be life-threatening. The nurse should prioritize assessing and managing the dehydration of the 2-year-old. Choices A, C, and D, although they may also require attention, do not present the same level of immediate risk as a dehydrated 2-year-old.

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