ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Call a code immediately
- B. Assess the client for a pulse
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Continue to monitor the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.
2. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse educator?
- A. Provide direct patient care
- B. Conduct research on nursing practices
- C. Develop and implement educational programs for nursing staff
- D. Supervise nursing staff
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The role of a nurse educator primarily involves developing and implementing educational programs for nursing staff. While providing direct patient care and supervising nursing staff are essential functions in healthcare, these tasks are not the primary responsibilities of a nurse educator. Conducting research on nursing practices is typically associated with the role of a nurse researcher, not a nurse educator.
3. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: Platelet count
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about foods that are included on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Broth
- C. Popsicle
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Yogurt. Yogurt is not part of a clear liquid diet. A clear liquid diet includes transparent or translucent liquids such as gelatin, broth, and popsicles. Yogurt is a thicker consistency and contains solid particles, making it inappropriate for a clear liquid diet. Choices A, B, and C are suitable options for a client following a clear liquid diet.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum chloride.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.