ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?
- A. The client who needs both sequential compression devices removed
- B. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom
- C. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing
- D. The male client who needs the intravenous fluid discontinued
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a serious complication. Therefore, this client should be seen first to prevent any potential harm. Choice B may be important, but it does not pose an immediate risk compared to thromboembolism. Choice C is a routine care task that can be delayed, and Choice D, discontinuing intravenous fluid, is important but not as urgent as preventing thromboembolism.
2. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?
- A. Pseudomembranous colitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Appendicitis
- D. Esophageal cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.
3. For a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements, which goal is most important?
- A. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%.
- B. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss.
- C. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day.
- D. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important goal for a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and imbalanced nutrition due to more than body requirements is to reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. This goal directly addresses the management of diabetes and is crucial in preventing complications associated with high blood sugar levels. Choice B focuses on weight loss, which may be beneficial but is not as critical as controlling blood sugar levels. Choice C, distributing calories throughout the day, is important for glycemic control but not as immediate as reaching a target HbA1c level. Choice D, stating the reasons for eliminating simple sugars, is a good educational goal but not as urgent as achieving glycemic control.
4. A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
- A. Hyperactivity
- B. Spoon-shaped nails
- C. Gait problems
- D. Petechiae
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.
5. The nurse provides medication instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates the best understanding of the medication therapy?
- A. The cimetidine (Tagamet) will cause me to produce less stomach acid.
- B. Sucralfate (Carafate) will change the fluid in my stomach.
- C. Antacids will coat my stomach.
- D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) will coat the ulcer and help it heal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cimetidine (Tagamet) works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps to manage peptic ulcer disease.