Nursing Elites

1. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

• A. Army Nurse Corps officer
• B. First Sergeant
• C. E6, E7, or E8
• D. E3, E4, or E5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Accountability.' This choice is the most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours' as it directly relates to being responsible for and knowing the actions and whereabouts of individuals under supervision. 'Personal/professional development' (choice B) focuses on growth and advancement, 'Individual training' (choice C) pertains to specific skill development, and 'Military appearance/physical condition' (choice D) deals with the physical presentation and health of soldiers, none of which directly address the task of knowing soldiers' activities during duty hours.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

• A. The client who needs both sequential compression devices removed
• B. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom
• C. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing
• D. The male client who needs the intravenous fluid discontinued

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a serious complication. Therefore, this client should be seen first to prevent any potential harm. Choice B may be important, but it does not pose an immediate risk compared to thromboembolism. Choice C is a routine care task that can be delayed, and Choice D, discontinuing intravenous fluid, is important but not as urgent as preventing thromboembolism.

4. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

• A. Preoccupation with calories
• B. Thick body hair
• C. Sore tongue
• D. Dry, brittle hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.

5. The nurse cares for a client receiving furosemide (Lasix). The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following foods?

• A. One medium baked potato
• B. One slice of white bread
• C. One medium apple
• D. One scrambled egg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One medium baked potato. Potatoes are high in potassium, which is essential for clients on Lasix to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like baked potatoes can help maintain normal potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D do not provide a significant source of potassium, which is crucial for clients on furosemide therapy.

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