Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
• B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
• C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
• D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.

3. What is the correct amount of specimen to collect when collecting a stool specimen for testing purposes?

• A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site
• B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
• C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the
• D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When collecting a stool specimen, the nurse should usually take about 1 inch of the specimen or a teaspoonful for testing purposes. This amount is sufficient for laboratory analysis and helps ensure accurate results. It is important for the nurse to follow the proper procedure for specimen collection to maintain accuracy in diagnostic testing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the correct information on the amount of specimen needed for stool specimen collection.

4. Which referral would be most appropriate for the client diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome?

• A. The physical therapist
• B. The thoracic surgeon
• C. The occupational therapist
• D. The social worker

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in helping clients with conditions like thoracic outlet syndrome by providing exercises, adaptations, and strategies to improve function and reduce symptoms. Choice A, the physical therapist, may also be involved in treatment, but occupational therapists focus more on functional activities for daily living affected by the condition. Choices B and D are not the most appropriate referrals for thoracic outlet syndrome as they do not directly address the functional limitations associated with this condition.

5. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
• B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
• C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
• D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect as in Type 1 diabetes the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is incorrect as while excessive sugar intake can contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as the pituitary gland's function is unrelated to the development of Type 2 diabetes.

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