Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. In patients receiving chemotherapy, which nutrient is often supplemented to manage mucositis?

• A. Vitamin E
• B. Vitamin B12
• C. Zinc
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Zinc supplementation is often used to manage mucositis in patients receiving chemotherapy. Zinc has been shown to aid in the healing process of mucositis. Vitamin E (Choice A) is not typically used to manage mucositis associated with chemotherapy. Vitamin B12 (Choice B) is essential for nerve function and the formation of red blood cells, but it is not primarily used to manage mucositis. Calcium (Choice D) is important for bone health and nerve function but is not specifically used to manage mucositis.

3. The nurse is caring for the client recovering from intestinal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt
• B. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen
• C. Tenderness around the surgical site during palpation
• D. Complaints of chills and feeling feverish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of chills and feeling feverish may indicate infection, which requires immediate intervention. This finding suggests a systemic response to infection, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Options A, B, and C are common postoperative findings and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

4. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

5. The medical C4I headquarters has automated data processing systems that aid in which of the following?

• A. Patient accountability
• B. Tracking the movement of patients
• C. Management of health service logistics systems
• D. Patient accountability, tracking the movement of patients, and management of health service logistics systems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the automated data processing systems in the medical C4I headquarters play a role in patient accountability, tracking the movement of patients, and managing health service logistics systems. These systems help in efficiently managing patient information, monitoring and coordinating patient movements, and optimizing the logistics involved in health services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent individual aspects that are all encompassed by the functions of the automated data processing systems in the C4I headquarters.

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