Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

• A. 68A30
• B. 68WM6
• C. Physician assistant
• D. 6.80E+21

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

3. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.

4. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum or the first part of the small intestine. While ulcers can also occur in the esophagus and stomach, they are predominantly located in the duodenum. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.

5. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s vital signs
• B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
• C. Begin iced saline lavage
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.

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