Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:

• A. Novolin L insulin
• B. Novolin R insulin
• C. Novolin N insulin
• D. Novolin U insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin) because it is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin R has a rapid onset of action, making it suitable for this acute situation. Novolin L insulin (Choice A) is not typically used for continuous infusion in diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin N insulin (Choice C) is an intermediate-acting insulin and is not ideal for rapid correction needed in diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin U insulin (Choice D) is an ultra-long-acting insulin and is not appropriate for the immediate correction required in this scenario.

3. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?

• A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
• B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
• C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
• D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another. This method allows for accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine. Choice B is incorrect because it does not specify the correct method for collecting urethral and bladder urine separately. Choice C is incorrect because prostatic fluid is a separate specimen that does not require prostatic massage for collection. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests collecting a routine urine specimen, which does not fulfill the HCP's orders for specific cultures.

4. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

5. Participating in the development of long-term and preventive health goals with the patient and their family is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Planning. In the nursing process, planning involves developing long-term and preventive health goals in collaboration with the patient and their family. This step focuses on outlining the strategies and interventions needed to achieve the desired outcomes. Choice A, Evaluation, occurs after interventions are implemented to assess the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice C, Implementation, involves carrying out the planned interventions. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step in the nursing process that involves collecting data to identify the patient's needs and health status.

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