a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the mother before administering the MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is about the child's allergy to antibiotics. This is crucial because the MMR vaccine contains neomycin, an antibiotic, and being allergic to antibiotics like neomycin is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections is not directly relevant to the administration of the MMR vaccine.

3. Which intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report to the healthcare provider any decrease in urinary output. A decrease in urinary output can be indicative of a blockage or other complication, necessitating immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because pouching the stoma with a margin around it is not directly related to managing complications. Choice B is incorrect as referring the client to an ostomy association may be beneficial for education but is not the immediate action needed for decreased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring for infection, although important, is not the priority when dealing with a potential complication like decreased urinary output.

4. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid which medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which help protect the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in patients with peptic ulcers. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help in symptom relief by neutralizing stomach acid. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to worsen peptic ulcers and are generally safe for use in patients with this condition.

5. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

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