a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. The nurse is planning to provide education about foods containing thiamine to a group of clients. Which food high in thiamine should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pork. Pork is high in thiamine, which is important for preventing thiamine deficiency. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and metabolism. While fish, beef, and eggs are nutritious foods, they are not as high in thiamine as pork. Fish is more commonly known for its omega-3 fatty acids, beef for its iron content, and eggs for being a good source of protein and other nutrients.

3. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Spinach and beef.' Spinach and beef are high in iron, which is crucial for treating iron deficiency anemia. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, making them effective choices to increase iron levels in the body. Yogurt and mozzarella (Choice A), fish and cottage cheese (Choice C), and turkey slices and milk (Choice D) do not contain as high iron content as spinach and beef, making them less effective in addressing iron deficiency anemia.

4. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. What intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report any decrease in urinary output to the healthcare provider. Decreased urinary output in these clients may indicate a blockage or another complication, which requires immediate attention. Monitoring the stoma for signs of infection (Choice D) is important but not the priority when compared to a decrease in urinary output. Pouching the stoma with a one-inch margin around it (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not address the issue of decreased urinary output. Referring the client to the United Ostomy Association (Choice B) is not necessary in this immediate situation where a potential complication is suspected.

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