Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?

• A. Calcium
• B. Iodine
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production, and its deficiency can contribute to hypothyroidism. While calcium, vitamin C, and iron are important for overall health, they are not specifically related to thyroid function. Calcium is more associated with bone health, vitamin C with immune function, and iron with red blood cell production.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

• A. The client who needs both sequential compression devices removed
• B. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom
• C. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing
• D. The male client who needs the intravenous fluid discontinued

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, making it the priority. Choice B involves assisting with ambulation, which can be done after addressing the urgent need of the client in choice A. Choice C and D involve non-urgent tasks compared to the potential risks associated with not removing sequential compression devices promptly.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. The nurse is caring for the client recovering from intestinal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt
• B. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen
• C. Tenderness around the surgical site during palpation
• D. Complaints of chills and feeling feverish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of chills and feeling feverish may indicate infection, which requires immediate intervention. This finding suggests a systemic response to infection, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Options A, B, and C are common postoperative findings and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

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