Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.

3. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
• C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
• D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

4. Which type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Low-fat
• D. High-protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimizes irritants in the colon, which can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. High-fiber diets, like choice A, are typically recommended for diverticulosis prevention but may exacerbate symptoms during a flare-up due to increased bulk in the stool. Low-fat (choice C) and high-protein (choice D) diets are not specifically indicated for diverticulitis flare-ups.

5. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

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