a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

2. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "All of the above." Evaluation of learning after a colonoscopy would be evident if the client mentions all the statements provided. Mild tenderness in the abdominal muscles, starting with a light diet and progressing to a regular diet, and experiencing gas or bloating temporarily are all expected after a colonoscopy. Therefore, all the statements are correct in demonstrating the client's understanding of the post-procedure instructions. Choices B, C, and D provide accurate information about the expected outcomes following a colonoscopy, making them incorrect answers individually but correct when combined as option A.

3. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.

4. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations and expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are well-equipped to handle military personnel and are strategically placed for operational efficiency. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not have the specialized care and resources required for military personnel. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, cater to veterans rather than active-duty personnel in theater. Choice D, temporary field hospitals, might not provide the comprehensive care and resources needed for an extended period of treatment.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

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