ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
2. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, what is important to monitor for?
- A. Intake and output
- B. Mental status changes
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, monitoring mental status changes is crucial. Serotonin Antagonists can affect neurological function, potentially leading to alterations in mental status. It is essential to assess for any changes in behavior, mood, or cognition to ensure patient safety and prompt intervention if needed.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.
4. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucosamine
- B. Saw palmetto
- C. Kava
- D. St. John's wort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic use or high doses of kava have been associated with liver damage, including severe liver failure. Therefore, the nurse should report the client's use of kava to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
5. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?
- A. Insulin glargine
- B. NPH insulin
- C. Regular insulin
- D. Insulin lispro
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Regular insulin. Regular insulin, also known as short-acting insulin, typically exhibits a peak effect around 1 to 5 hours following administration. This rapid onset and peak effect make it suitable for managing postprandial glucose levels. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect, making it unsuitable for rapid glucose control within 1 to 5 hours. NPH insulin has an intermediate duration of action and a different peak time frame. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 30 minutes to 2.5 hours after administration, not within the 1 to 5-hour range.
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