a nurse is reviewing a clients health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemi which of the following medications shou
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

2. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Colesevelam is to take it with food and at least one glass of water. This helps to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect because Digoxin and Colesevelam should not be taken together. Option B is irrelevant to the administration of Colesevelam. Option C is unrelated to the specific instructions for taking Colesevelam.

3. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor for and report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of digoxin, which may indicate toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any further complications. Dry cough is not typically associated with digoxin use. Pedal edema is a common symptom of heart failure, which digoxin is prescribed to manage. Bruising is not a common adverse effect of digoxin.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

5. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.

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