a nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for metformin which of the following adverse effects of metformin should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of Metformin should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somnolence. Somnolence can indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious adverse effect of Metformin. Lactic acidosis is manifested by extreme drowsiness, hyperventilation, and muscle pain. Clients should be instructed to report these symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly to prevent further complications.

2. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

3. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

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