Nursing Elites

1. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.

2. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
• B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
• C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
• D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

3. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

4. Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

• A. Antacids
• B. Certain antibiotics
• C. Cholesterol-lowering medications
• D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.

5. The nurse cares for a client receiving furosemide (Lasix). The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following foods?

• A. One medium baked potato
• B. One slice of white bread
• C. One medium apple
• D. One scrambled egg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One medium baked potato. Potatoes are high in potassium, which is crucial for clients on furosemide (Lasix) to prevent hypokalemia, as furosemide can cause potassium loss. White bread (choice B) and scrambled egg (choice D) are not high-potassium foods and do not address the specific need related to furosemide therapy. While apples (choice C) contain some potassium, they are not as rich in potassium as a baked potato, making them a less optimal choice for a client on furosemide.

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