a 31 year old client is seeking contraceptive information before responding to the clients questions about contraceptives the nurse obtains a health
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.

2. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

3. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.

4. Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.

5. The nurse cares for a client receiving furosemide (Lasix). The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One medium baked potato. Potatoes are high in potassium, which is crucial for clients on furosemide (Lasix) to prevent hypokalemia, as furosemide can cause potassium loss. White bread (choice B) and scrambled egg (choice D) are not high-potassium foods and do not address the specific need related to furosemide therapy. While apples (choice C) contain some potassium, they are not as rich in potassium as a baked potato, making them a less optimal choice for a client on furosemide.

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