ATI RN
ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Quizlet
1. A client who is 12 weeks pregnant and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should eat foods high in protein before bedtime.
- B. You should avoid consuming liquids with your meals.
- C. You should eat three large meals per day.
- D. You should consume caffeine to help with nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should avoid consuming liquids with your meals.' This advice is essential because avoiding drinking liquids with meals can help prevent overdistension of the stomach, which can worsen nausea. Option A is incorrect because eating foods high in protein before bedtime may not directly address the issue of nausea and vomiting. Option C is incorrect as eating three large meals a day may exacerbate nausea due to overeating or having an empty stomach for an extended period. Option D is incorrect as consuming caffeine can actually worsen nausea in pregnant clients.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Swaddle the newborn tightly
- B. Provide frequent tactile stimulation
- C. Position the newborn in a prone position
- D. Offer large feedings every 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome is to swaddle the newborn tightly. Swaddling helps to provide comfort and reduce irritability in these newborns. Choice B, providing frequent tactile stimulation, may exacerbate the symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome by overstimulating the newborn. Choice C, positioning the newborn in a prone position, is not recommended as it increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Choice D, offering large feedings every 4 hours, is not appropriate as newborns with neonatal abstinence syndrome may have feeding difficulties and need smaller, more frequent feedings.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Painless vaginal bleeding
- B. Severe abdominal pain
- C. Uterine contractions
- D. Increased fetal movement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding as the placenta is located over or near the cervical opening. This bleeding occurs because the placental vessels are stretched and bleed easily. Severe abdominal pain (choice B) is not a typical finding in placenta previa. Uterine contractions (choice C) are more characteristic of preterm labor rather than placenta previa. Increased fetal movement (choice D) is not a specific finding associated with placenta previa.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for ibuprofen for perineal pain. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take the medication only at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Take the medication with caffeine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with food.' Ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal upset, so it is essential for the client to take the medication with food to minimize this side effect. Choice A, 'Take the medication on an empty stomach,' is incorrect because ibuprofen should be taken with food to prevent stomach irritation. Choice B, 'Take the medication only at bedtime,' is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for ibuprofen administration related to bedtime. Choice D, 'Take the medication with caffeine,' is incorrect as there is no benefit in combining ibuprofen with caffeine, and caffeine could potentially worsen gastrointestinal side effects.
5. A nurse is providing care for a client who is in active labor and receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contraction frequency of 2 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 90 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate of 150/min
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 90 seconds can indicate uterine tachysystole, which may lead to fetal hypoxia. Uterine tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window. Contractions every 2 minutes (Choice A) may occur in active labor but need to be assessed in conjunction with other factors. A fetal heart rate of 150/min (Choice C) is within the normal range. Urine output of 60 mL/hr (Choice D) is also within the expected range for a client in labor.
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