Nursing Elites

1. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is your priority?

• A. Increase the I.V. infusion rate.
• B. Use diversion activities.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Give ice chips every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide frequent mouth care. In a patient with peritonitis who is NPO and thirsty, the priority is to maintain oral hygiene and provide comfort by moistening the mouth with frequent mouth care. This helps alleviate the sensation of thirst and maintains oral health. Increasing the IV infusion rate (choice A) may not address the patient's discomfort directly related to thirst. Using diversion activities (choice B) is not as critical as addressing the patient's immediate need for oral care. Giving ice chips every 15 minutes (choice D) is not recommended for a patient with peritonitis who is NPO, as it can lead to complications or worsen the condition.

2. Jason, a 22 y.o. accident victim, requires an NG tube for feeding. What should you immediately do after inserting an NG tube for liquid enteral feedings?

• A. Aspirate for gastric secretions with a syringe.
• B. Begin feeding slowly to prevent cramping.
• C. Get an X-ray of the tip of the tube within 24 hours.
• D. Clamp off the tube until the feedings begin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Immediately after inserting an NG tube for enteral feedings, aspirate for gastric secretions to confirm proper placement.

3. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is an NSAID that can aggravate acute gastritis and should be questioned.

4. A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

• A. Explain that high-fat diets usually are tolerated better.
• B. Encourage intake of foods high in protein.
• C. Explain that the majority of calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.
• D. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Explaining to the client that the majority of calories should be eaten in the morning hours is important because nausea occurs most often in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are tolerated better.

5. Stephen is a 62 y.o. patient that has had a liver biopsy. Which of the following groups of signs alert you to a possible pneumothorax?

• A. Dyspnea and reduced or absent breath sounds over the right lung
• B. Tachycardia, hypotension, and cool, clammy skin
• C. Fever, rebound tenderness, and abdominal rigidity
• D. Redness, warmth, and drainage at the biopsy site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dyspnea and reduced or absent breath sounds over the right lung are signs of a possible pneumothorax.

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