Nursing Elites

1. While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?

• A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
• B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
• C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
• D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. What is the primary function of antioxidants in the diet?

• A. Provide energy
• B. Support muscle growth
• C. Neutralize free radicals
• D. Increase blood sugar

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary function of antioxidants in the diet is to neutralize free radicals. Free radicals can cause cellular damage, leading to various chronic diseases. Antioxidants help combat this oxidative stress by neutralizing free radicals. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antioxidants do not provide energy, support muscle growth, or increase blood sugar; their main role is in combating oxidative stress.

3. Mang Caloy is scheduled to have a hemorrhoidectomy, after the operation, you would expect that the client’s position post operatively will be:

• A. Knee chest position
• B. Side lying position
• C. Sims position
• D. Genopectoral position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

4. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

5. Patients with this chronic nutrient deficiency may feel tired, weak, and irritable while being unable to pinpoint why. Hypertension, heart attack, stroke, kidney stones, and osteoporosis are associated with the chronic deficiency of which nutrient?

• A. Zinc
• B. Iron
• C. Sodium
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Chronic potassium deficiency can lead to hypertension, heart attack, stroke, kidney stones, and osteoporosis. Patients experiencing this deficiency may feel tired, weak, and irritable without knowing the cause. Choice A (Zinc) is incorrect as zinc deficiency presents with different symptoms. Choice B (Iron) deficiency is associated with anemia symptoms, not the conditions listed. Choice C (Sodium) deficiency typically manifests as muscle cramps, weakness, and confusion, not the conditions described in the question.

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