Nursing Elites

1. While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?

• A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
• B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
• C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
• D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. In taking the client’s blood pressure, the nurse should position the client’s arm:

• A. At the level of the heart
• B. Slightly above the level of the heart
• C. At the 5th intercostals space midclavicular line
• D. Below the level of the heart

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper patient positioning is essential for maximizing lung expansion and promoting the drainage of secretions. Postural drainage techniques rely on gravity to help clear different lung segments, which is critical in preventing complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia in immobilized patients.

3. Glucagon is a hormone released into the bloodstream in response to high blood sugar. It helps to lower blood glucose after a meal.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glucagon is released in response to low blood sugar and raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the release of glucose from liver stores, not lowering it.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary needs by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as being the lowest in phosphorus?

• A. Medium apple
• B. Bran cereal
• C. Scrambled eggs
• D. Ground turkey

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a medium apple. Apples are a suitable option for clients with chronic kidney disease as they are low in phosphorus. Bran cereal (choice B), scrambled eggs (choice C), and ground turkey (choice D) are all higher in phosphorus content compared to apples, making them less ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

5. Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?

• A. Tall T waves and Pathologic Q wave
• B. Widening QRS Complex and U wave
• C. None of the above
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.

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