ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?
- A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
- B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
- C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
- D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.
2. John Watson argued that psychologists should?
- A. Use the method of introspection to establish the structural aspects of consciousness.
- B. Be concerned with the purposiveness (function) of behavior.
- C. Confine their work to people who are diagnosed as mentally ill.
- D. Abandon the study of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: John Watson was a key figure in the development of behaviorism, which advocated for focusing on observable behavior rather than the study of consciousness. Choice D is the correct answer because Watson believed that psychology should abandon the study of consciousness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Watson's approach emphasized behavior and rejected the importance of consciousness, introspection, or confining psychology to only mentally ill individuals.
3. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.
4. The more alcohol a woman consumes during pregnancy, the __________.
- A. higher the birth weight of the child
- B. greater the likelihood of ARND instead of FAS or p-FAS
- C. poorer the child's achievement scores in the school years
- D. greater the child's speed of information processing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'poorer the child's achievement scores in the school years.' Prenatal exposure to alcohol has been linked to a range of cognitive and behavioral difficulties, including lower academic achievement in children. These difficulties may manifest as poor achievement scores in later school years. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because alcohol consumption during pregnancy is not associated with higher birth weight of the child, the likelihood of ARND instead of FAS or p-FAS, or greater speed of information processing in the child.
5. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
- A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
- B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
- C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
- D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.