Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

• A. Screening for diabetes
• B. Vaccination programs
• C. Emergency response planning
• D. Chronic disease management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

2. How did the Social Security Act of 1935 impact public health nursing?

• A. Disabled children
• B. Mentally disabled
• C. Older adults
• D. Opioid addicts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Social Security Act of 1935 impacted public health nursing by containing provisions for care for disabled children. This helped in improving the health and well-being of this vulnerable population. The Act did not specifically address care for mentally disabled individuals, older adults, or opioid addicts. Therefore, the correct answer is disabled children.

3. A unit director at a local hospital knows even leadership may face ethical dilemmas. Which of the following should the director take into consideration when dealing with an employee who is incompetent?

• A. The situation should be tolerated for as long as possible because of the amount of time and paperwork required to terminate an incompetent nurse.
• B. Incompetence only impacts the individual nurse.
• C. The director should follow her institution’s formal process for reporting and handling practices that jeopardize patient safety.
• D. Most nurse practice acts direct how to handle incompetent nurses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Incompetence jeopardizes patient safety. Therefore, the formal process for handling these practices should be followed.

4. What is the main purpose of a utilization review?

• A. Evaluate patient outcomes
• B. Ensure compliance with regulations
• C. Reduce hospital readmissions
• D. Assess financial impact

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main purpose of a utilization review is to evaluate patient outcomes and ensure that patients receive appropriate care based on medical necessity and quality standards. While ensuring compliance with regulations, reducing hospital readmissions, and assessing financial impact are important aspects of healthcare management, the primary goal of utilization review is to focus on the quality and effectiveness of patient care.

5. A nurse manager needs to resolve a conflict between the staff nurses and the physical therapy department. What type of power might the manager utilize? (EXCEPT)

• A. Connection and referent power
• B. Reward and punishment power
• C. Legitimate power
• D. Information power

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse manager may utilize various types of power to resolve the conflict between the staff nurses and the physical therapy department. Referent power and connection power are based on respect/admiration and influential links, respectively. Information power is about access to valuable data. Reward power involves offering inducements for cooperation, while punishment power is about imposing penalties for non-compliance. Legitimate power, however, is derived from the manager's authority associated with their job and rank. Since the question asks for the type of power the manager might utilize 'EXCEPT,' legitimate power, being a key type of power often used in managerial roles, is the correct answer. It's important for the nurse manager to understand the dynamics of power and utilize the appropriate types to effectively address interdepartmental conflicts.

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