Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

• A. Screening for diabetes
• B. Vaccination programs
• C. Emergency response planning
• D. Chronic disease management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

2. What term refers to the situation where the pay of newer employees is similar to or higher than that of more experienced employees?

• A. Salary compression
• B. Salary expectations
• C. Salary range
• D. Salary inflation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Salary compression is the term used to describe the situation where the pay of newer employees is similar to or higher than that of more experienced employees. This can happen when newer employees are paid higher salaries to attract them, leading to a compressed salary structure in the organization. Choice B, 'Salary expectations,' does not specifically refer to the scenario described in the question. Choice C, 'Salary range,' is a broader term referring to the range of salaries offered for a particular job or position, not specifically related to the disparity between new and experienced employees. Choice D, 'Salary inflation,' does not accurately describe the situation of newer employees earning higher salaries than more experienced ones; instead, it refers to a general increase in wages across the board.

3. What is the main purpose of a utilization review?

• A. Evaluate patient outcomes
• B. Ensure compliance with regulations
• C. Reduce hospital readmissions
• D. Assess financial impact

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main purpose of a utilization review is to evaluate patient outcomes and ensure that patients receive appropriate care based on medical necessity and quality standards. While ensuring compliance with regulations, reducing hospital readmissions, and assessing financial impact are important aspects of healthcare management, the primary goal of utilization review is to focus on the quality and effectiveness of patient care.

4. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

5. Which of the following is one of the sources used to determine the reason for voluntary turnover?

• A. Following-up phone calls
• B. Employee questioning
• C. Benchmarking
• D. Exit interviewing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Exit interviewing.' Exit interviews are a crucial source used to determine the reasons for voluntary turnover. During exit interviews, departing employees provide valuable insights into their reasons for leaving, which can help organizations identify areas for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Following-up phone calls and benchmarking are not commonly used methods for determining the reasons behind voluntary turnover. While employee questioning can be a part of the exit interview process, the primary source mentioned in the context of voluntary turnover is exit interviewing.

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