Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?

• A. Increased intrathoracic pressure
• B. Weakness of the esophageal muscle
• C. Increased esophageal muscle pressure
• D. Weakness of the diaphragmic muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Weakness of the diaphragmic muscle can lead to a hiatal hernia as it allows part of the stomach to push through the diaphragm into the chest cavity.

2. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?

• A. Flushed, dry skin.
• B. Headache and bradycardia.
• C. Dizziness and sweating.
• D. Dyspnea and chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.

3. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

• A. Assessing for pain
• B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
• C. Providing discharge teaching
• D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.

4. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is a Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. Propranolol (Inderal) is a B- adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders.

5. A client had an abdominal perineal resection with a colostomy 4 days ago and is ready for discharge. Which of the following would be an appropriate expected outcome at this point?

• A. The client maintains a high-fiber diet.
• B. The client discusses concerns about his sexual functioning.
• C. The client maintains bedrest.
• D. The client limits fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients often have concerns about their sexuality after a fecal diversion. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss any questions about sexual functioning. The client will not need to maintain a high-fiber diet but will be encouraged to avoid any foods that cause odor and flatulence. The client should be able to ambulate and sit out of bed for several hours at a time at this point. Fluid intake will be encouraged, not restricted.

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