Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse advocate?

• A. Direct patient care provider
• B. Advocate for patient needs
• C. Manage nursing staff
• D. Ensure policy adherence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Advocate for patient needs.' A nurse advocate's primary role is to stand up for the patient's rights and ensure their needs are met. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as while nurses do provide direct patient care, the specific role of a nurse advocate goes beyond that. Choice C, 'Manage nursing staff,' is incorrect as this pertains to a nurse manager's role, not a nurse advocate. Choice D, 'Ensure policy adherence,' is also incorrect as this reflects more of a quality assurance or compliance role, rather than the advocacy role of a nurse advocate.

2. Healthcare systems primarily have functional structures. Which of the following would be an example of this?

• A. Open communication exists between Physical Therapy and Nursing.
• B. Medicine has authority over nursing.
• C. Laboratory services have little authority.
• D. All nursing tasks fall under nursing service.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In functional structures, employees are grouped in departments by specialty, with similar tasks being performed by the same group. This means that in a healthcare system with a functional structure, all nursing tasks would fall under the nursing service. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because open communication between departments, one department having authority over another, or the level of authority of a particular department do not necessarily represent a functional structure.

3. What is the primary goal of discharge planning?

• A. Reducing readmission rates
• B. Improving patient outcomes
• C. Ensuring continuity of care
• D. Ensuring medication adherence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of discharge planning is to ensure continuity of care for patients transitioning from one level of care to another. While reducing readmission rates and improving patient outcomes are important aspects of discharge planning, the main focus is on coordinating care to prevent gaps and ensure a seamless transition for the patient. Ensuring medication adherence is also crucial but falls under the broader goal of continuity of care.

4. Which of the following are NOT outcomes of a job analysis? (EXCEPT)

• A. Job specification
• B. Job evaluation
• C. Job description
• D. Job performance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Job description is actually one of the key outcomes of a job analysis. A job description details the duties, responsibilities, and requirements of a specific job role. Job specification, job evaluation, and job performance are not outcomes of a job analysis. Job specification refers to the specific qualifications and skills required for a job, job evaluation involves determining the relative worth of different jobs within an organization, and job performance relates to how well an employee is executing their job duties.

5. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

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