Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Lidocaine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is specifically used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and blocking the effects of opioids. Epinephrine is mainly used to treat severe allergic reactions, Atropine is used for certain types of heart conditions and to reduce salivation or respiratory secretions, and Lidocaine is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of reversing opioid overdose.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Inability to identify common objects
• C. Poor problem-solving ability
• D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• B. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
• C. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.

4. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

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