ATI RN
Nursing Care of Children ATI
1. When planning care for a child with a urinary tract infection, the nurse should give priority to which treatment measure?
- A. Provide adequate nutrition to prevent dehydration.
- B. Administer ordered antibiotics on schedule.
- C. Prevent enuresis.
- D. Restrict fluid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering antibiotics on schedule is crucial in treating a UTI effectively and preventing complications. Antibiotics help to eliminate the infection-causing bacteria from the urinary tract. While maintaining adequate nutrition and hydration are important aspects of care, the priority in a UTI is to target the infection with antibiotics. Preventing enuresis (bedwetting) is not directly related to the treatment of the infection. Fluid restriction is not recommended in the management of a UTI; in fact, encouraging adequate fluid intake helps flush out bacteria from the urinary tract.
2. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
- B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
- C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
- D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
- A. Weak femoral pulses.
- B. Frequent nosebleeds.
- C. Upper extremity hypotension.
- D. Increased intracranial pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Weak femoral pulses are an expected finding in an infant with coarctation of the aorta. The narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses. Frequent nosebleeds (Choice B) are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Upper extremity hypotension (Choice C) is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure is usually elevated in the upper extremities. Increased intracranial pressure (Choice D) is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm below waist level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.
5. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?
- A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
- B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
- C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
- D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.
Correct answer: For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.
Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.