Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the client with celiac disease, the nurse can expect to find which of the following?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Jaundiced sclerae
• C. Clay-colored stools
• D. Widened pulse pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Because celiac disease destroys the absorbing surface of the intestine, fat isn't absorbed but is passed in the stool. Steatorrhea is bulky, fatty stools that have a foul odor. Jaundiced sclerae result from elevated bilirubin levels. Clay-colored stools are seen with biliary disease when bile flow is blocked. Celiac disease doesn't cause a widened pulse pressure.

2. Matt is a 49 y.o. with a hiatal hernia that you are about to counsel. Health care counseling for Matt should include which of the following instructions?

• A. Restrict intake of high-carbohydrate foods.
• B. Increase fluid intake with meals.
• C. Increase fat intake.
• D. Eat three regular meals a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a hiatal hernia, it is important to eat three regular meals a day to prevent symptoms.

3. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?

• A. Milk
• B. Bicarbonate of soda or baking soda
• C. Enteric-coated aspirin
• D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to cause gastritis by irritating the stomach lining. Choice A, Milk, is unlikely to cause gastritis and is actually a common remedy for mild gastritis symptoms. Choice B, Bicarbonate of soda or baking soda, is often used to relieve heartburn and indigestion, not cause gastritis. Choice C, Enteric-coated aspirin, is less likely to cause gastritis compared to NSAIDs because the enteric coating helps protect the stomach lining from irritation.

4. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

5. Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate the development of diverticulosis into diverticulitis?

• A. Treating constipation with chronic laxative use, leading to dependence on laxatives
• B. Chronic constipation causing an obstruction, reducing forward flow of intestinal contents
• C. Herniation of the intestinal mucosa, rupturing the wall of the intestine
• D. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the area to bacterial invasion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum can lead to bacterial invasion, causing inflammation and turning diverticulosis into diverticulitis. Choices A, B, and C do not directly facilitate the development of diverticulitis. Choice A involves a different mechanism related to laxative use, choice B describes a complication of chronic constipation but does not necessarily lead to diverticulitis, and choice C refers to a different condition involving herniation of the intestinal mucosa.

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