Nursing Elites

1. When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the healthcare provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone). The nurse will anticipate that the patient may

• A. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
• B. develop acute hypoglycemia while taking prednisone
• C. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
• D. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking metformin develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause and is prescribed prednisone, the nurse should anticipate that the patient may require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. Prednisone can increase blood glucose levels by antagonizing the effects of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Therefore, the patient may need additional insulin to manage blood sugar levels effectively. The other options are incorrect as prednisone would not directly cause a need for a higher-calorie diet, acute hypoglycemia, or rashes caused by a metformin-prednisone interaction.

2. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

• A. Flexible staffing
• B. Self-staffing
• C. Internal pools
• D. Management scheduling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

3. A few weeks after an 82-year-old with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been placed on metformin (Glucophage) therapy and taught about appropriate diet and exercise, the home health nurse makes a visit. Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C level is 7.9%.
• B. Last eye exam was 18 months ago.
• C. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased.
• D. Patient has questions about the prescribed diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important finding to discuss with the healthcare provider is the decreased glomerular filtration rate. In patients on metformin therapy, monitoring kidney function is crucial as metformin is primarily excreted through the kidneys. A decreased glomerular filtration rate can lead to metformin accumulation in the body, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious adverse effect. The hemoglobin A1C level being 7.9% indicates poor diabetes control but can be addressed through medication adjustments and lifestyle modifications. The patient needing an eye exam after 18 months is important but not as urgent as discussing the decreased glomerular filtration rate. Patient questions about the prescribed diet can be addressed during the visit without the need for immediate healthcare provider intervention.

4. A Staff Nurse submits a six-week notice of resignation. The Nurse Manager prepares a request to immediately post the position and begin interviews. This action is best described as which of the following?

• A. Delegation
• B. A time-waster
• C. Reactive management
• D. Proactive management

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Proactive management. Proactive management involves taking steps to prevent issues from occurring rather than just reacting to them. In this scenario, the Nurse Manager is being proactive by preparing to fill the position before the Staff Nurse leaves, thereby preventing short staffing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Delegation refers to assigning tasks to others, not preparing to fill a vacant position. Calling it a time-waster is subjective and not reflective of the manager's proactive approach. Reactive management would involve waiting until the Nurse leaves and then trying to fill the position, causing short staffing.

5. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

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