Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?

• A. Assess an applicant's motivation
• B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
• C. Assess an applicant's skills
• D. Assess an applicant's ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.

2. Caring is a fundamental value in nursing and serves as the basis for caring leadership. Which of the following statements is true about a caring leader?

• A. A caring leader balances serving others with effective leadership.
• B. A caring leader recognizes and acknowledges the emotions of others.
• C. Traits of a caring leader involve respecting coworkers as individuals and empathizing with their needs and concerns.
• D. A caring leader demonstrates fairness and honesty.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A caring leader embodies traits such as respecting coworkers as unique individuals and showing empathy towards their needs and concerns. These qualities are essential for fostering a supportive and compassionate work environment, where team members feel valued and understood. Choice A is incorrect because a caring leader balances serving others with effective leadership, not prioritizing one over the other. Choice B, though important, focuses solely on recognizing emotions and does not encompass the broader traits of caring leadership. Choice D is also important but does not capture the essence of respecting individuals and empathizing with their needs, which are core aspects of caring leadership.

3. What is the main goal of discharge planning?

• A. To ensure that patients are discharged as quickly as possible
• B. To prevent hospital readmissions
• C. To educate patients about their medications
• D. To transition patients from one level of care to another

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main goal of discharge planning is to prevent hospital readmissions by ensuring patients have a clear and effective plan for post-discharge care. This includes coordinating follow-up appointments, medication management, and providing necessary support services to promote a successful transition from the hospital to home or another care setting. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discharge planning is not primarily about speedy discharge, medication education, or transitioning between care levels; its main focus is on preventing readmissions through comprehensive post-discharge care.

4. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

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