Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?

• A. Assess an applicant's motivation
• B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
• C. Assess an applicant's skills
• D. Assess an applicant's ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.

2. What is the primary responsibility of a clinical nurse leader (CNL)?

• A. Supervise nursing staff
• B. Coordinate patient care
• C. Develop nursing policies
• D. Implement evidence-based practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main role of a clinical nurse leader (CNL) is to coordinate patient care. While CNLs may oversee aspects of nursing staff, the primary focus is on coordinating patient care to ensure effective treatment and outcomes. Developing nursing policies and implementing evidence-based practice are important aspects of nursing leadership but are not the main role of a CNL.

3. The problem of overrating staff performance is called ___________ .

• A. Recency error
• B. Absolute judgment
• C. Halo error
• D. Leniency error

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Leniency error.' Leniency error occurs when a manager tends to overrate staff performance, giving higher ratings than deserved. Choice A, 'Recency error,' refers to the tendency to focus only on recent behaviors or events when evaluating performance. Choice B, 'Absolute judgment,' is not directly related to overrating staff performance; it refers to making evaluations without considering the context or comparison points. Choice C, 'Halo error,' involves allowing one positive aspect of an individual to overshadow other factors in performance evaluation, which is different from overrating overall staff performance.

4. Which of the following are significant benefits to an organization that is considering adoption of a practice partnership model? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Clients express reduced satisfaction.
• B. It is less expensive to implement than other models.
• C. Continuity of care is facilitated.
• D. Leadership is well accepted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continuity of care is facilitated. One of the significant benefits of a practice partnership model is that it facilitates continuity of care, which can lead to better outcomes for clients. Choice A is incorrect as clients would not express reduced satisfaction with this model; in fact, greater client satisfaction is a benefit. Choice B is incorrect because the cost-effectiveness of the model is not specified or guaranteed. Choice D is incorrect as the acceptance of leadership is not explicitly mentioned as a significant benefit of this model.

5. One of the most useful tools to determine reasons for turnover is:

• A. Questioning.
• B. Surveys.
• C. Employee forums.
• D. Telephone calls.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surveys are one of the most effective tools to determine reasons for turnover because they allow employees to provide feedback anonymously, leading to more truthful responses. While questioning can be part of the process, surveys provide a structured and standardized way to collect data. Employee forums may not always elicit honest responses due to peer pressure or fear of repercussions. Telephone calls may not reach all employees and do not guarantee anonymity, potentially leading to biased or incomplete information.

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