two dietary components that may help decrease blood cholesterol levels are
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam

1. Which two dietary components may help decrease blood cholesterol levels?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Omega-3 fatty acids and soluble fiber. Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce triglycerides, while soluble fiber helps to lower LDL cholesterol levels. Both of these components are beneficial in managing blood cholesterol levels. Choice B, short-chain fatty acids and insoluble fiber, is incorrect as they do not have the same cholesterol-lowering effects as omega-3 fatty acids and soluble fiber. Choice C, trans fatty acids and potassium, is incorrect as trans fatty acids can raise LDL cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease. Choice D, cis fatty acids and calcium, is incorrect as cis fatty acids are common in natural fats and do not specifically help in reducing blood cholesterol levels.

2. Characteristics of type two diabetes include all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, high blood glucose levels, and high blood insulin levels. Rapid destruction of the pancreas is not a feature of this condition. The destruction of pancreatic beta cells is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes, not type 2 diabetes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are all characteristic features of type 2 diabetes, making them incorrect choices.

3. A nurse is teaching a group of adults about nutrition. The nurse should include which of the following amounts as an appropriate daily intake of fiber for adult women?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 20 to 35 g. This range is the recommended daily intake of fiber for adult women. Fiber is essential for maintaining a healthy digestive system and overall well-being. Option A (5 to 10 g) is too low and may not provide sufficient fiber intake. Option B (10 to 15 g) is also below the recommended range. Option D (40 to 50 g) is too high and can lead to gastrointestinal discomfort and other complications if consumed in excess.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following lab values indicates the treatment is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Albumin 4.2 g/dL. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of nutritional status. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), an increase in albumin level indicates that the treatment is effective in providing adequate nutrition support. Hct (hematocrit), WBC (white blood cell count), and calcium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN in this context.

5. Cariogenic foods and beverages, which are fermentable carbohydrates that can be metabolized by oral bacteria, reduce salivary pH to what critical level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cariogenic foods and beverages lower the pH level in the mouth to below 5.5. This is a critical threshold, as it is the point at which enamel begins to demineralize, increasing the risk of dental caries. Therefore, options 'A', 'C', and 'D' are incorrect. Although a pH level of 5, as suggested by option 'A', would indeed lead to demineralization, it's not the threshold value. The pH levels suggested by options 'C' and 'D' (6 and 6.5, respectively) are higher than the critical value of 5.5, which means they would not initiate enamel demineralization and the subsequent risk of dental caries.

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